Friday, March 03, 2006

Just The Facts Please?

Tell me, is it theologically correct to tell people Jesus died for their sins?
Yes or No, please cite your appropriate chapter and verse(s).


Matthew Celestine said...


John 3:16.

Kc said...

1st John 2:2
"And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world."

Jim said...

Thanks brothers, I wonder if any Calvinists visit this blog? hmmm...

Matthew Celestine said...

I like the way you keep asking questions, Jim.

Jim said...

Hey Matthew, I really like seeing what people have to say regarding certain issues.

I truly believe that questions are the best way to learn things. God has given us the ability to be inquisitive and search out the depths of His word. Questions allow us to consider new possibilites and avenues we may not have explored before.

Anonymous said...

Yes, Jim! II Cor 5:14, I Tim 4:10, I Jn 2:2, Rom 5, etc.

But you know as well as me that the Calvinist could answer the same way. You know the sufficient/efficient distinction; hypothetical universalism, etc.

Good question!

Jim said...

Hi Bobby, thanks for your comments.

God bless,

Rose~ said...

Romans 5:8
But God demonstrates his own love for us in this: While we were still sinners, Christ died for us.

Ephesians 5:2
Christ loved us and gave himself up for us as a fragrant offering and sacrifice to God.

1 John 3:16
This is how we know what love is: Jesus Christ laid down his life for us.

John 3:16
"For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.

Galatians 2:20
I have been crucified with Christ and I no longer live, but Christ lives in me. The life I live in the body, I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me.

1 John 4:9
This is how God showed his love among us: He sent his one and only Son into the world that we might live through him.

1 John 4:10
This is love: not that we loved God, but that he loved us and sent his Son as an atoning sacrifice for our sins.

The "us" is defined in John 3:16. The Bible says to preach the gospel to all people. What is the gospel? Is it, "Christ died for some and you might be one of them"???

You hit upon one of my peeves about some of the theology I read.
Great post!

Jim said...

Hi Rose~,

Thanks for the comments, I'm glad I helped to stimulate some thoughts on this topic. Now I just wish some Calvinists would stop by and share a few thoughts.

God bless,

jazzycat said...

Would Jesus die for anyone that he would not pray for? (John 17:9) If Jesus died for 100% of the people that ever lived then the power of the atonement is limited unless one believes in universalism. If he died for believers only then the scope of the atonement is limited. Does John 17 shed any light?

Jim said...

Jazzycat, thanks for stopping by. It seems that Jesus is referring to His disciples in this prayer. Later on He refers to the ones to whom His disciples will preach to and who will believe the gospel.

Consider this analogy; every so often the U.S. government declares an amnesty for illegal immigrants. All who come forward can receive a green card giving them legal resident status. Do all illegals come forward? Obviously not. Why not? Does that mean that the offer was not valid to them? Of course it was, but they refused to accept it.

Similarly, the Bible says whosoever will may come. The offer of grace does no good to those who refuse to accept it, nevertheless it is a valid offer.

God bless,

jazzycat said...

Jim said:
(Similarly, the Bible says whosoever will may come. The offer of grace does no good to those who refuse to accept it, nevertheless it is a valid offer.)

I agree 100%. The external call is a valid offer and is used with the effectual (inner call) of the Holy Spirit to quicken and regenerate lost sinners which enables them to freely come to faith in Jesus Christ.

Jim, I enjoy your site.


Jim said...

Jazzycat, I am honoured and humbled by your words.

God bless,

Unknown said...

Yes ecasue of John 1:29

The next day he saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, "Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!"

I take this to mean God has removed through Christ the personal barrier between Him and sinful humanity so that He can draw them to Christ

Good Question:)

God bless :)

Jim said...

Yes, sin was definitely the barrier between us and God. He had made a temporary provision with Israel through the blood of bulls and goats but this could never remove sin completely, rather it only provided a covering. However now Christ has paid once for all the debt of sin through His shed blood on the cross.

We are made righteous through the Lamb's shed blood. Amen!